Name: 
 

Mid Term Review



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Technological development often occurs
a.
by accident.
b.
long after the basis research is complete.
c.
in order go learn basic information.
d.
only to make money.
 

 2. 

Applied research is carried out in order to
a.
to solve a particular problem.
b.
by accident.
c.
to learn basic information.
d.
in order to make money.
 

 3. 

A measure of the quantity of matter is
a.
density.
c.
volume.
b.
weight.
d.
mass.
 

 4. 

The vertical columns on the periodic table are called
a.
periods.
c.
groups.
b.
rows.
d.
elements.
 

 5. 

A true statement about mass is that
a.
mass if often measured with a spring scale.
b.
mass is expressed in pounds.
c.
as the force of Earth's gravity on an object increases, the object's mass increases.
d.
mass is determined by comparing the mass of an object with a set of standard masses that are part of a balance.
 

 6. 

If a mixture is not uniform throughout, it is called
a.
homogeneous.
c.
chemically bonded.
b.
heterogeneous.
d.
a solution.
 

 7. 

The symbol mm represents
a.
micrometer.
c.
milliliter.
b.
millimeter.
d.
meter.
 

 8. 

Which of these metric units is used to measure mass?
a.
m
c.
g
b.
mm
d.
L
 

 9. 

The liter is defined as
a.
1000 m3.
c.
1000 g3.
b.
1000 cm3.
d.
1000 c3.
 

 10. 

Which of these symbols represents a unit of volume?
a.
mL
c.
mm
b.
mg
d.
cm
 

 11. 

Which of these is a measure of the amount of material?
a.
density
c.
volume
b.
weight
d.
mass
 

 12. 

A sample of gold has a mass of 96.5 g and a volume of 5.00 cm3. The density of gold is
a.
0.0518 g/cm3.
c.
101.5 g/cm3.
b.
19.3 g/cm3.
d.
483 g/cm3.
 

 13. 

What is the density of 37.72 g of material whose volume is 6.80 cm3?
a.
0.180 g/cm3
c.
30.9 g/cm3
b.
5.55 g/cm3
d.
256. g/cm3
 

 14. 

100 milliliters is equivalent to
a.
1 hectoliter.
c.
1 centiliter.
b.
1 microliter.
d.
1 deciliter.
 

 15. 

The number of significant figures in the measurement 0.000 305 kg is
a.
2.
c.
6.
b.
3.
d.
7.
 

 16. 

In oxides of nitrogen, such as N2O, NO, NO2, and N2O3, atoms combine in small whole-number ratios. This evidence supports the law of
a.
conservation of mass.
c.
definite composition.
b.
multiple proportions.
d.
mass action.
 

 17. 

Dalton's atomic theory agrees with modern atomic theory except for the statement that
a.
all matter is made up of small particles.
b.
atoms are not divided in chemical reactions.
c.
atoms of the same element are chemically alike.
d.
all atoms of the same element have the same mass.
 

 18. 

Because most particles fired at metal foil passed straight through, Rutherford concluded that
a.
atoms were mostly empty space.
c.
electrons formed the nucleus.
b.
atoms contained no charged particles.
d.
atoms were indivisible.
 

 19. 

The tritium atom consists of
a.
one proton, two neutrons, and two electrons.
b.
one proton, one neutron, and one electron.
c.
one proton, two neutrons, and one electron.
d.
two protons, one neutron, and one electron.
 

 20. 

In determining the atomic mass of elements, the standard is the
a.
C-12 atom.
c.
H-1 atom.
b.
C-14 atom.
d.
O-16 atom.
 

 21. 

Carbon-14 (atomic number 6), the radioactive nuclide used in dating fossils, has
a.
6 neutrons.
c.
10 neutrons.
b.
8 neutrons.
d.
14 neutrons.
 

 22. 

The number of atoms in 1 mol of carbon is
a.
6.022 ´ 1022.
c.
5.022 ´ 1022.
b.
6.022 ´ 1023.
d.
5.022 ´ 1023.
 

 23. 

To determine the molar mass of an element, one must know the element's
a.
Avogadro constant.
c.
number of isotopes.
b.
atomic number.
d.
average atomic mass.
 

 24. 

The mass of 1 mol of chromium (atomic mass 51.996 amu) is
a.
12 g.
c.
51.996 g.
b.
198 g.
d.
6.02 ´ 1023 g.
 

 25. 

A prospector finds 39.39 g of pure gold (atomic mass 196.9665 amu). She has
a.
1.204 ´ 1023 atoms of Au.
c.
4.306 ´ 1023 atoms of Au.
b.
2.308 ´ 1023 atoms of Au.
d.
6.022 ´ 1023 atoms of Au.
 

 26. 

The emission of electrons from metals that have absorbed photons is called the
a.
interference effect.
c.
quantum effect.
b.
photoelectric effect.
d.
dual effect.
 

 27. 

The specific wavelengths of light seen through a prism that are made when high-voltage current is passed through a tube of hydrogen gas at low pressure is a
a.
line-emission spectrum.
c.
photoelectric effect.
b.
electron configuration.
d.
continuous electromagnetic spectrum.
 

 28. 

Because excited hydrogen atoms always produce the same line-emission spectrum, scientists concluded that hydrogen
a.
had no electrons.
b.
did not release photons.
c.
released photons of only certain energies.
d.
could only exist in the ground state.
 

 29. 

The equation E = hn helped Louis de Broglie determine
a.
how protons and neutrons behave in the nucleus.
b.
how electron wave frequencies correspond to specific energies.
c.
whether electrons behave as particles.
d.
whether electrons exist in a limited number of orbits with different energies.
 

 30. 

Which model of the atom explains why excited hydrogen gas gives off certain colors of light?
a.
the Bohr model
c.
Rutherford's model
b.
the de Broglie model
d.
Planck's theory
 

 31. 

According to the quantum theory of an atom, in an orbital
a.
an electron's position cannot be known precisely.
b.
an electron has no energy.
c.
electrons cannot be found.
d.
electrons travel around the nucleus on paths of specific radii.
 

 32. 

What values can the angular momentum quantum number have when n = 2?
a.
mc032-1.jpg
c.
0, 1, 2
b.
mc032-2.jpg
d.
0, 1
 

 33. 

Each atomic orbital is described by its principal quantum number followed by the
a.
value of the electron's spin state.
c.
number of electrons in the sublevel.
b.
magnetic quantum number.
d.
letter of the sublevel.
 

 34. 

How many electrons are needed to completely fill the fourth energy level?
a.
8
c.
32
b.
18
d.
40
 

 35. 

The statement that an electron occupies the lowest available energy orbital is
a.
Hund's rule.
c.
Bohr's law.
b.
the Aufbau principle.
d.
the Pauli exclusion principle.
 

 36. 

The Pauli exclusion principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can
a.
occupy the same orbital.
b.
have the same spin quantum numbers.
c.
have the same set of quantum numbers.
d.
be at the same main energy level.
 

 37. 

Mendeleev predicted that the spaces in his periodic table represented
a.
isotopes.
c.
unstable elements.
b.
radioactive elements.
d.
undiscovered elements.
 

 38. 

The discovery of what elements added a new column to Mendeleev's periodic table?
a.
noble gases
c.
transition elements
b.
radioactive elements
d.
metalloids
 

 39. 

The principle that states that the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers is
a.
the periodic table.
c.
the law of properties.
b.
the periodic law.
d.
Mendeleev's law.
 

 40. 

The periodic law states that
a.
no two electrons with the same spin can be found in the same place in an atom.
b.
the physical and chemical properties of the elements are functions of their atomic numbers.
c.
electrons exhibit properties of both particles and waves.
d.
the chemical properties of elements can be grouped according to periodicity but physical properties cannot.
 

 41. 

Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a.
atomic masses.
c.
numbers of neutrons.
b.
atomic numbers.
d.
properties.
 

 42. 

The electron configurations of the noble gases from neon to radon in the periodic table make these elements part of the
a.
f block.
c.
s block.
b.
d block.
d.
p block.
 

 43. 

The electron configuration of an element is [Kr] 4d6 5s1. To what group does this element belong?
a.
Group 4
c.
Group 7
b.
Group 5
d.
Group 9
 

 44. 

The group of soft, silvery, reactive metals, all of which have one electron in an s orbital, is known as the
a.
alkaline-earth metals.
c.
alkali metals.
b.
transition metals.
d.
metalloids.
 

 45. 

In the alkaline-earth group, atoms with the smallest radii
a.
are the most reactive.
b.
have the largest volume.
c.
are all gases.
d.
have the highest ionization energies.
 

 46. 

Which is the best reason that the atomic radius generally increases with atomic number in each group of elements?
a.
The nuclear charge increases.
b.
The number of neutrons increases.
c.
The number of occupied energy levels increases.
d.
A new octet forms.
 

 47. 

The ionization energies required to remove successive electrons from one mole of calcium atoms are 590 kJ/mol, 1145 kJ/mol, 4912 kJ/mol, and 6474 kJ/mol. The most common ion of calcium is probably
a.
Ca+.
c.
Ca3+.
b.
Ca2+.
d.
Ca4+.
 

 48. 

As independent particles, most atoms are
a.
at relatively high potential energy.
c.
very stable.
b.
at relatively low potential energy.
d.
part of a chemical bond.
 

 49. 

The B—F bond in BF3 (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is
a.
polar covalent.
c.
nonpolar covalent.
b.
ionic.
d.
metallic.
 

 50. 

What is the correct Lewis structure for hydrogen chloride, HCl?

mc050-1.jpgmc050-2.jpg
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 51. 

The chemical formula for an ionic compound represents the
a.
number of atoms in each molecule.
b.
number of ions in each molecule.
c.
ratio of the combined ions present in a sample.
d.
total number of ions in the crystal lattice.
 

 52. 

The chemical formula for water, a covalent compound, is H2O. This formula is an example of a(n)
a.
formula unit.
c.
ionic formula.
b.
Lewis structure.
d.
molecular formula.
 

 53. 

In an ionic compound, the orderly arrangement of ions in a crystal is the state of
a.
maximum potential energy.
c.
average potential energy.
b.
minimum potential energy.
d.
zero potential energy.
 

 54. 

If the lattice energy of compound A is greater than that of compound B,
a.
compound A is not an ionic compound.
b.
the bonds in compound A are stronger than the bonds in compound B.
c.
compound B is probably a gas.
d.
compound A has larger crystals than compound B.
 

 55. 

How many electrons must be shown in the Lewis structure of the hydroxide ion, OH?
a.
1
c.
9
b.
8
d.
10
 

 56. 

The shiny appearance of a metal is most closely related to the metal's
a.
highly mobile valence electrons.
c.
brittle crystalline structure.
b.
covalent bonds.
d.
positive ions.
 

 57. 

VSEPR theory is a model for predicting
a.
the strength of metallic bonds.
c.
lattice energy values.
b.
the shape of molecules.
d.
ionization energy.
 

 58. 

According to VSEPR theory, the shape of an AB3 molecule is
a.
trigonal-planar.
c.
linear.
b.
tetrahedral.
d.
bent.
 

 59. 

The mixing of two or more atomic orbitals of similar energies on the same atom to produce new orbitals of equal energies is called
a.
VSEPR theory.
c.
hybridization.
b.
malleability.
d.
dipole-dipole interaction.
 

 60. 

What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions and chloride ions?
a.
CaCl
c.
CaCl3
b.
Ca2Cl
d.
CaCl2
 

 61. 

What is the formula for barium hydroxide?
a.
BaOH
c.
Ba(OH)2
b.
BaOH2
d.
Ba(OH)
 

 62. 

Name the compound CF4.
a.
calcium fluoride
c.
carbon tetrafluoride
b.
carbon fluoride
d.
monocalcium quadrafluoride
 

 63. 

Name the compound SO3.
a.
sulfur trioxide
c.
selenium trioxide
b.
silver trioxide
d.
sodium trioxide
 

 64. 

What is the oxidation number of oxygen in H2O2?
a.
–2
c.
+2
b.
–1
d.
–4
 

 65. 

What is the oxidation number of sulfur in SO2?
a.
0
c.
+2
b.
+1
d.
+4
 

 66. 

Name the compound N2O2 using the Stock system.
a.
dinitrogen monoxide
c.
nitrogen(II) oxide
b.
nitrogen dioxide
d.
nitrogen oxide(II)
 

 67. 

The molar mass of an element is the mass of one
a.
atom of the element.
c.
gram of the element.
b.
crystal of the element.
d.
mole of the element.
 

 68. 

What is the sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in a formula for a compound?
a.
molecular mass
c.
atomic mass
b.
formula mass
d.
actual mass
 

 69. 

The molar mass of LiF is 25.94 g/mol. How many moles of LiF are present in 10.37 g?
a.
0.3998 mol
c.
2.500 mol
b.
1.333 mol
d.
36.32 mol
 

 70. 

What is the mass of 0.240 mol glucose, C6H12O6?
a.
24.0 g
c.
180.16 g
b.
43.2 g
d.
750. g
 

 71. 

The empirical formula is always the accepted formula for a(n)
a.
atom.
c.
molecular compound.
b.
molecule.
d.
ionic compound.
 

 72. 

A compound's empirical formula is NO2. If the formula mass is 92 amu, what is the molecular formula?
a.
NO
c.
NO4
b.
N2O2
d.
N2O4
 

 73. 

What is the molecular formula of a compound that has a formula mass of 50.48 amu and an empirical formula of CH3Cl?
a.
CHCl
c.
CH3Cl
b.
CH2Cl
d.
CH2Cl2
 

 74. 

In a chemical reaction
a.
the mass of the reactants equals the mass of the products.
b.
the mass of the products is greater than the mass of reactants.
c.
the number of atoms in the reactants and products must change.
d.
energy as heat must be added to the reactants.
 

 75. 

When a solid produced by a chemical reaction separates from the solution it is called
a.
a precipitate.
c.
a molecule.
b.
a reactant.
d.
the mass of the product.
 

 76. 

Which coefficients correctly balance the formula equation
NH4NO2(s)® N2(g) + H2O(l)?
a.
1, 2, 2
c.
2, 1, 1
b.
1, 1, 2
d.
2, 2, 2
 

 77. 

The equation AX ® A + X is the general equation for a
a.
synthesis reaction.
c.
combustion reaction.
b.
decomposition reaction.
d.
single-displacement reaction.
 

 78. 

Some acids, such as carbonic acid, decompose to nonmetal oxides and
a.
water.
c.
oxygen.
b.
a salt.
d.
peroxide.
 

 79. 

In a double-displacement reaction, hydrogen chloride and sodium hydroxide react to produce sodium chloride. Another product is
a.
sodium hydride.
c.
water.
b.
potassium chloride.
d.
hydrogen gas.
 

 80. 

Some metals, such as iron, react with steam to produce hydrogen gas and a
a.
metal hydroxide.
c.
metallic acid.
b.
metal hydride.
d.
metal oxide.
 

 81. 

If chlorine gas is produced by halogen replacement, the other halogen in the reaction must be
a.
bromine.
c.
astatine.
b.
iodine.
d.
fluorine.
 

 82. 

The formulas for the products of the reaction between sodium hydroxide and sulfuric acid are
a.
Na2SO4 and H2O.
c.
SI4 and Na2O.
b.
NaSO4 and H2O.
d.
S + O2 and Na.
 

 83. 

An element in the activity series can replace any element
a.
in the periodic table.
c.
above it on the list.
b.
below it on the list.
d.
in its group.
 

 84. 

Which branch of chemistry deals with the mass relationships of elements in compounds and the mass relationships among reactants and products in chemical reactions?
a.
qualitative analysis
c.
chemical kinetics
b.
entropy
d.
stoichiometry
 
 
Use the table below to answer the following questions.

ElementSymbolAtomic Mass
BromineBr79.90
CalciumCa40.08
CarbonC12.01
ChlorineCl35.45
CobaltCo58.93
CopperCu63.55
FluorineF19.00
HydrogenH1.01
IodineI126.90
IronFe55.85
LeadPb207.2
MagnesiumMg24.30
MercuryHg200.59
NitrogenN14.01
OxygenO15.00
PotassiumK39.10
SodiumNa22.99
SulfurS32.01
 

 85. 

For the reaction represented by the equation 2H2 + O2 ® 2H2O, how many grams of water are produced from 6.00 mol of hydrogen?
a.
2.00 g
c.
54.0 g
b.
6.00 g
d.
108 g
 

 86. 

For the reaction represented by the equation 2Na + Cl2 ® 2NaCl, how many grams of chlorine gas are required to react completely with 2.00 mol of sodium?
a.
35.5 g
c.
141.8 g
b.
70.9 g
d.
212.7 g
 

 87. 

According to the kinetic-molecular theory, gases condense into liquids because of
a.
gravity.
c.
forces between molecules.
b.
atmospheric pressure.
d.
elastic collisions.
 

 88. 

Which process can be explained by the kinetic-molecular theory?
a.
combustion
c.
condensation
b.
oxidation
d.
displacement reactions
 

 89. 

By which process do gases take the shape of their container?
a.
evaporation
c.
adhesion
b.
expansion
d.
diffusion
 

 90. 

Which of these best describes vaporization?
a.
the process by which a liquid changes to a gas
b.
the process by which a solid changes to a gas
c.
Both (a) and (b)
d.
Neither (a) nor (b)
 

 91. 

The energy of the particles in a solid is
a.
higher than the energy of the particles in a gas.
b.
high enough to allow the particles to interchange with other particles.
c.
higher than the energy of the particles in a liquid.
d.
lower than the energy of the particles in liquids and gases.
 

 92. 

In general, most substances are
a.
least dense in the liquid state.
b.
more dense as gases than as solids.
c.
less dense as solids than as liquids.
d.
most dense in the solid state.
 

 93. 

What is the total three-dimensional array of points that describes the arrangement of the particles of a crystal called?
a.
unit cell
c.
diffraction pattern
b.
crystal lattice
d.
crystalline system
 

 94. 

According to the figure below, what is the most volatile substance shown?

mc094-1.jpg
a.
benzene
c.
toluene
b.
water
d.
aniline
 

 95. 

Convert the pressure 2.50 atm to kPa.
a.
1 kPa
c.
760 kPa
b.
253 kPa
d.
1000 kPa
 

 96. 

According to Avogadro's law, 1 L of H2(g) and 1 L of O2(g) at the same temperature and pressure
a.
have the same mass.
b.
have unequal volumes.
c.
contain 1 mol of gas each.
d.
contain equal numbers of molecules.
 

 97. 

Knowing the mass and volume of a gas at STP allows one to calculate the
a.
identity of the gas.
c.
condensation point of the gas.
b.
molar mass of the gas.
d.
rate of diffusion of the gas.
 

 98. 

When pressure, volume, and temperature are known, the ideal gas law can be used to calculate
a.
the chemical formula.
c.
molar amount.
b.
the ideal gas constant.
d.
rate of effusion.
 
 
Use the table below to answer the following questions.

Element
Atomic Mass
Argon
39.948
Bromine
79.904
Carbon
12.011
Chlorine
35.453
Fluorine
18.998
Helium
4.0026
Hydrogen
1.0079
Nitrogen
14.007
Oxygen
15.999
 

 99. 

How many times greater is the rate of effusion of molecular fluorine than that of molecular bromine at the same temperature and pressure?
a.
2.051
c.
4.450
b.
3.062
d.
7.280
 

 100. 

A sample of helium diffuses 4.57 times faster than an unknown gas diffuses. What is the molar mass of the unknown gas?
a.
12 g/mol
c.
38.8 g/mol
b.
18.2 g/mol
d.
83.5 g/mol
 



 
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