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Chemistry Pre-Test Semester 1

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
Technological development often occurs
a.
by accident.
b.
long after the basis research is complete.
c.
in order go learn basic information.
d.
only to make money.
 

 2. 
If a mixture is uniform in composition, it is said to be
a.
homogeneous.
c.
heterogeneous.
b.
chemically bonded.
d.
a compound.
 

 3. 
Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?
a.
a gold ring
c.
granite
b.
seawater
d.
sucrose
 

 4. 
It is easy to determine whether a substance is a metal if the substance is
a.
easy to break down into its components.
b.
very hard.
c.
very brittle.
d.
a good electrical and heat conductor.
 

 5. 
Inorganic chemistry is the study of
a.
non-carbon related compounds.
b.
the chemistry of living things.
c.
mathematical modeling.
d.
the identification of the composition of materials.
 

 6. 
Basic research is usually performed
a.
to develop new products.
b.
to understand an environmental problem.
c.
to gain knowledge.
d.
to solve a particular problem.
 

 7. 
Which of the following is not a physical change?
a.
grinding
c.
boiling
b.
cutting
d.
burning
 

 8. 
A chemical change occurs when
a.
dissolved minerals solidify to form a crystal.
b.
ethanol is purified through distillation.
c.
salt deposits form from evaporated seawater.
d.
a leaf changes color in the fall.
 

 9. 
Nitrogen monoxide and oxygen, both colorless gases, form a red-brown gas when mixed. Nitrogen monoxide and oxygen are called the
a.
products.
c.
synthetics.
b.
equilibria.
d.
reactants.
 

 10. 
Under ordinary conditions of temperature and pressure, the particles in a gas are
a.
closely packed.
b.
very far from one another.
c.
held in fixed positions.
d.
unevenly distributed.
 

 11. 
Plasma is the fourth state of matter. In the plasma state
a.
atoms gain electrons.
b.
atoms lose electrons.
c.
atoms form molecules.
d.
atomic nuclei break down.
 

 12. 
The horizontal rows on the periodic table are called
a.
actinides.
c.
elements.
b.
families.
d.
periods.
 

 13. 
Which of these is a measure of the amount of material?
a.
density
c.
volume
b.
weight
d.
mass
 

 14. 
If 1 inch equals 2.54 cm, how many centimeters equal 1 yard?
a.
0.0706 cm
c.
30.5 cm
b.
14.2 cm
d.
91.4 cm
 

 15. 
Which of these measurements has been expressed to three significant figures?
a.
0.052 g
c.
3.065 g
b.
0.202 g
d.
500 g
 

 16. 
When 64.4 is divided by 2.00, the correct number of significant figures in the result is
a.
1.
c.
4.
b.
3.
d.
6.
 

 17. 
What is 1.245 633 501 ´ 108 rounded to four significant figures?
a.
1246
c.
1.246 ´ 108
b.
1.2456 ´ 108
d.
1.246 ´ 104
 

 18. 
The graph of two variables that are directly proportional to one another is
a.
a straight line.
c.
a parabola.
b.
an ellipse.
d.
a hyperbola.
 

 19. 
In oxides of nitrogen, such as N2O, NO, NO2, and N2O3, atoms combine in small whole-number ratios. This evidence supports the law of
a.
conservation of mass.
c.
definite composition.
b.
multiple proportions.
d.
mass action.
 

 20. 
If 63.5 g of copper (Cu) combine with 16 g of oxygen (O) to form the compound CuO, how many grams of oxygen will be needed to combine with the same amount of copper to form the compound CuO2?
a.
16 g
c.
64 g
b.
32 g
d.
127 g
 

 21. 
According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a compound, the mass of the compound is ____ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.
a.
equal to
c.
less than
b.
greater than
d.
either greater than or less than
 

 22. 
What is the ratio of oxygen to carbon when 32 g of oxygen combine with 12 g of carbon?
a.
1:1
c.
1:2
b.
2:1
d.
8:3
 

 23. 
The rays produced in a cathode tube are
a.
unaffected by a magnetic field.
c.
found to carry a positive charge.
b.
deflected away from a negative plate.
d.
striking the cathode.
 

 24. 
The deflection of cathode rays in Thomson's experiments was evidence of the ____ nature of electrons.
a.
wave
c.
particle
b.
charged
d.
spinning
 

 25. 
A nuclear particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)
a.
nuclide.
c.
electron.
b.
neutron.
d.
isotope.
 

 26. 
Which part of an atom has a mass approximately equal to 1/2000 of the mass of a common hydrogen atom?
a.
nucleus
c.
proton
b.
electron
d.
neutron
 

 27. 
Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different
a.
principal chemical properties.
c.
numbers of protons.
b.
masses.
d.
numbers of electrons.
 

 28. 
The most common form of hydrogen has
a.
no neutrons.
c.
two neutrons.
b.
one neutron.
d.
three neutrons.
 

 29. 
The mass of a sample containing 3.5 mol of silicon atoms (atomic mass 28.0855 amu) is approximately
a.
28 g.
c.
72 g.
b.
35 g.
d.
98 g.
 

 30. 
A quantum of electromagnetic energy is called a(n)
a.
photon.
c.
excited atom.
b.
electron.
d.
orbital.
 

 31. 
The energy of a photon is related to its
a.
mass.
c.
frequency.
b.
speed.
d.
size.
 

 32. 
For an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state,
a.
energy must be released.
b.
energy must be absorbed.
c.
radiation must be emitted.
d.
the electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level.
 

 33. 
Louis de Broglie's research suggested that
a.
frequencies of electron waves do not correspond to specific energies.
b.
electrons usually behave like particles and rarely like waves.
c.
electrons should be considered as waves confined to the space around an atomic nucleus.
d.
electron waves exist at random frequencies.
 

 34. 
Both the Heisenberg uncertainty principle and the Schrödinger wave equation
a.
are based on Bohr's theory.
b.
treat electrons as particles.
c.
led to locating an electron in an atom.
d.
led to the concept of atomic orbitals.
 

 35. 
The angular momentum quantum number indicates the
a.
orientation of an orbital around the nucleus.
b.
shape of an orbital.
c.
direction of the spin of the electron in its orbital.
d.
main energy level of an orbital.
 

 36. 
The number of sublevels within each energy level of an atom is equal to the value of the
a.
principal quantum number.
b.
angular momentum quantum number.
c.
magnetic quantum number.
d.
spin quantum number.
 

 37. 
If 8 electrons completely fill a main energy level, what is n?
a.
2
c.
8
b.
4
d.
32
 

 38. 
If the third main energy level contains 15 electrons, how many more could it possibly hold?
a.
0
c.
3
b.
1
d.
17
 

 39. 
The statement that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same four quantum numbers is
a.
the Pauli exclusion principle.
c.
Bohr's law.
b.
Hund's rule.
d.
the Aufbau principle.
 

 40. 
In the ground state, the 3d and 4s sublevels of the chromium atom (atomic number 24) are represented as
a.
3d6 4s1.
c.
3d5 4s1.
b.
3d4 4s2.
d.
4s2 3d4.
 

 41. 
If the s and p orbitals of the highest main energy level of an atom are filled with electrons, the atom has a(n)
a.
electron pair.
c.
empty d orbital.
b.
octet.
d.
electron in an excited state.
 

 42. 
The number of electrons in the highest energy level of the argon atom (atomic number 18) is
a.
10.
c.
6.
b.
2.
d.
8.
 

 43. 
The idea of arranging the elements in the periodic table according to their chemical and physical properties is attributed to
a.
Mendeleev.
c.
Bohr.
b.
Moseley.
d.
Ramsay.
 

 44. 
Mendeleev predicted that the spaces in his periodic table represented
a.
isotopes.
c.
unstable elements.
b.
radioactive elements.
d.
undiscovered elements.
 

 45. 
The periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers. What determines the position of each element in the periodic table?
a.
mass number
c.
number of protons
b.
number of neutrons
d.
number of isotopes
 

 46. 
The principle that states that the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers is
a.
the periodic table.
c.
the law of properties.
b.
the periodic law.
d.
Mendeleev's law.
 

 47. 
How many elements are in a period in which only the s and p sublevels are filled?
a.
2
c.
18
b.
8
d.
32
 

 48. 
Because the first energy level contains only the 1s sublevel, the number of elements in this period is
a.
1.
c.
4.
b.
2.
d.
8.
 

 49. 
In the elements shown in the figure below, the s sublevel of the highest occupied energy level

mc049-1.jpg
a.
always contains one electron.
b.
always contains two electrons.
c.
varies in the number of electrons it contains.
d.
is always empty.
 

 50. 
Neutral atoms with an s2p6 electron configuration in the highest energy level belong to which block of the periodic table?
a.
s block
c.
d block
b.
p block
d.
f block
 

 51. 
The group of 14 f block elements in the sixth period is the
a.
actinides.
c.
transition elements.
b.
lanthanides.
d.
metalloids.
 

 52. 
To which block do the actinide elements belong?
a.
d block
c.
f block
b.
s block
d.
p block
 

 53. 
Bromine, atomic number 35, belongs to Group 17. How many electrons does bromine have in its outermost energy level?
a.
7
c.
18
b.
17
d.
35
 

 54. 
The most characteristic property of the noble gases is that they
a.
have low boiling points.
b.
are radioactive.
c.
are gases at ordinary temperatures.
d.
are largely unreactive.
 

 55. 
When an electron is added to a neutral atom, a certain amount of energy is
a.
always absorbed.
b.
always released.
c.
either released or absorbed.
d.
transferred to the more electronegative element.
 

 56. 
Which represents a neutral atom acquiring an electron in a process where energy is released?
a.
A + e– + energy ® A–
b.
A + e– ® A– – energy
c.
A + e– ® A– + energy
d.
A– + energy ® A + e–
 

 57. 
In a row in the periodic table, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius generally
a.
decreases.
c.
increases.
b.
remains constant.
d.
becomes immeasurable.
 

 58. 
Across a period in the periodic table, atomic radii
a.
gradually decrease.
b.
gradually decrease, then sharply increase.
c.
gradually increase.
d.
gradually increase, then sharply decrease.
 

 59. 
The ionization energies for removing successive electrons from sodium are 496 kJ/mol, 4562 kJ/mol, 6912 kJ/mol, and 9544 kJ/mol. The great jump in ionization energy after the first electron is removed indicates that
a.
sodium has four or five electrons.
b.
the atomic radius has increased.
c.
a d electron has been removed.
d.
the noble gas configuration has been reached.
 

 60. 
For each successive electron removed from an atom, the ionization energy
a.
increases.
c.
remains the same.
b.
decreases.
d.
shows no pattern.
 

 61. 
In groups 13 through 18, valence electrons may be in sublevels
a.
s and d.
c.
d and f.
b.
s and p.
d.
p and d.
 

 62. 
The pair of elements that forms a bond with the least ionic character is
a.
Na and Cl.
c.
O and Cl.
b.
K and Cl.
d.
Mg and Cl.
 

 63. 
The B—F bond in BF3 (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is
a.
polar covalent.
c.
nonpolar covalent.
b.
ionic.
d.
metallic.
 

 64. 
In a molecule of fluorine, the two shared electrons give each fluorine atom how many electron(s) in the outer energy level?
a.
1
c.
8
b.
2
d.
32
 

 65. 
A chemical bond formed by the attraction between positive ions and surrounding mobile electrons is a(n)
a.
nonpolar covalent bond.
c.
polar covalent bond.
b.
ionic bond.
d.
metallic bond.
 

 66. 
The strong forces of attraction between the positive and negative regions of molecules are called
a.
dipole-dipole forces.
c.
lattice forces.
b.
London forces.
d.
orbital forces.
 

 67. 
What is the formula for barium hydroxide?
a.
BaOH
c.
Ba(OH)2
b.
BaOH2
d.
Ba(OH)
 

 68. 
What is the formula for silicon dioxide?
a.
SO2
c.
Si2O
b.
SiO2
d.
S2O
 

 69. 
In a polyatomic ion, the algebraic sum of the oxidation numbers of all atoms is equal to
a.
0.
c.
10.
b.
the number of atoms in the ion.
d.
the charge of the ion.
 

 70. 
What is the formula mass of ethyl alcohol, C2H5OH?
a.
30.33 amu
c.
45.06 amu
b.
33.27 amu
d.
46.08 amu
 

 71. 
The molar mass of CS2 is 76.15 g/mol. How many grams of CS2 are present in 10.00 mol?
a.
0.13 g
c.
10.00 g
b.
7.614 g
d.
761.5 g
 

 72. 
In a chemical reaction
a.
the mass of the reactants equals the mass of the products.
b.
the mass of the products is greater than the mass of reactants.
c.
the number of atoms in the reactants and products must change.
d.
energy as heat must be added to the reactants.
 

 73. 
When a solid produced by a chemical reaction separates from the solution it is called
a.
a precipitate.
c.
a molecule.
b.
a reactant.
d.
the mass of the product.
 

 74. 
Which coefficients correctly balance the formula equation
NH4NO2(s)® N2(g) + H2O(l)?
a.
1, 2, 2
c.
2, 1, 1
b.
1, 1, 2
d.
2, 2, 2
 

 75. 
In what kind of reaction does one element replace a similar element in a compound?
a.
displacement reaction
c.
decomposition reaction
b.
combustion
d.
ionic reaction
 

 76. 
The equation A + X ® AX is the general equation for a(n)
a.
combustion reaction.
c.
synthesis reaction.
b.
ionic reaction.
d.
double-displacement reaction.
 

 77. 
Group 1 metals react with water to produce metal hydroxides and
a.
metal hydroxides.
c.
oxygen.
b.
hydrochloric acid.
d.
hydrogen.
 

 78. 
What is the balanced equation when aluminum reacts with copper(II) sulfate?
a.
Al + Cu2S ® Al2S + Cu
b.
2Al + 3CuSO4 ® Al2(SO4)3 + 3Cu
c.
Al + CuSO4 ® AlSO4 + Cu
d.
2Al + Cu2SO4 ® Al2SO4 + 2Cu
 

 79. 
Each of the four types of reaction stoichiometry problems requires using a
a.
table of bond energies.
c.
Lewis structure.
b.
chart of electron configurations.
d.
mole ratio.
 
 
Use the table below to answer the following questions.

ElementSymbolAtomic Mass
BromineBr79.90
CalciumCa40.08
CarbonC12.01
ChlorineCl35.45
CobaltCo58.93
CopperCu63.55
FluorineF19.00
HydrogenH1.01
IodineI126.90
IronFe55.85
LeadPb207.2
MagnesiumMg24.30
MercuryHg200.59
NitrogenN14.01
OxygenO15.00
PotassiumK39.10
SodiumNa22.99
SulfurS32.01
 

 80. 
For the reaction represented by the equation SO3 + H2O ® H2SO4, how many grams of sulfur trioxide are required to produce 4.00 mol of sulfuric acid in an excess of water?
a.
80.0 g
c.
240. g
b.
160. g
d.
320. g
 

 81. 
For the reaction represented by the equation Cl2 + 2KBr ® 2KCl + Br2, how many moles of potassium chloride are produced from 119 g of potassium bromide?
a.
0.119 mol
c.
0.581 mol
b.
0.236 mol
d.
1.00 mol
 

 82. 
A chemist interested in the efficiency of a chemical reaction would calculate the
a.
mole ratio.
c.
percentage yield.
b.
energy released.
d.
rate of reaction.
 

 83. 
For the reaction represented by the equation SO3 + H2O ® H2SO4, calculate the percentage yield if 500. g of sulfur trioxide react with excess water to produce 575 g of sulfuric acid.
a.
82.7%
c.
91.2%
b.
88.3%
d.
93.9%
 

 84. 
For the reaction represented by the equation Cl2 + 2KBr ® 2KCl + Br2, calculate the percentage yield if 200. g of chlorine react with excess potassium bromide to produce 410. g of bromine.
a.
73.4%
c.
91.0%
b.
82.1%
d.
98.9%
 

 85. 
For the reaction represented by the equation Mg + 2HCl ® H2 + MgCl2, calculate the percentage yield of magnesium chloride if 100. g of magnesium react with excess hydrochloric acid to yield 330. g of magnesium chloride.
a.
71.8%
c.
81.6%
b.
74.3%
d.
84.2%
 

 86. 
Unlike in an ideal gas, in a real gas
a.
all particles move in the same direction.
b.
all particles have the same kinetic energy.
c.
the particles cannot diffuse.
d.
the particles exert attractive forces on each other.
 

 87. 
Which substance has the lowest density?
a.
H2O(g)
c.
Hg(l)
b.
H2O(l)
d.
Hg(g)
 

 88. 
Diffusion between two gases occurs most rapidly if the gases are at
a.
high temperature and the molecules are small.
b.
low temperature and the molecules are large.
c.
low temperature and the molecules are small.
d.
high temperature and the molecules are large.
 

 89. 
The energy of the particles in a solid is
a.
higher than the energy of the particles in a gas.
b.
high enough to allow the particles to interchange with other particles.
c.
higher than the energy of the particles in a liquid.
d.
lower than the energy of the particles in liquids and gases.
 

 90. 
When does the concentration of a vapor decrease?
a.
when the rate of condensation decreases
b.
when the temperature remains constant
c.
when the liquid phase is warmed
d.
when the rate of condensation exceeds the rate of evaporation
 

 91. 
The equilibrium vapor pressure of a liquid increases with increasing temperature because
a.
the rate of condensation decreases.
b.
the average energy of the particles in the liquid increases.
c.
the volume decreases.
d.
the boiling point decreases.
 

 92. 
During the process of freezing, a liquid
a.
loses kinetic energy.
c.
gains potential energy.
b.
loses potential energy.
d.
gains kinetic energy.
 

 93. 
A pressure of 745 mm Hg equals
a.
745 torr.
c.
1 pascal.
b.
1 torr.
d.
745 pascal.
 

 94. 
If the temperature remains constant, V and P represent the original volume and pressure, and V' and P' represent the new volume and pressure, what is the mathematical expression for Boyle's law?
a.
P'V = V'P
c.
VP= V'P'
b.
VV' = PP'
d.
mc094-1.jpg
 

 95. 
The volume of a gas is 5.0 L when the temperature is 5.0°C. If the temperature is increased to 10.0°C without changing the pressure, what is the new volume?
a.
2.5 L
c.
5.1 L
b.
4.8 L
d.
10.0 L
 

 96. 
If 0.5 L of O2(g) reacts with H2 to produce 1 L of H2O(g), what is the volume of H2O(g) obtained from 1 L of O2(g)?
a.
0.5 L
c.
2 L
b.
1.5 L
d.
2.5 L
 

 97. 
For reactants or products that are gases, the coefficients in the chemical equation indicate
a.
the number of grams of each substance.
c.
molar volume.
b.
volume.
d.
density.
 

 98. 
A 1.00 L sample of a gas has a mass of 1.25 g at STP. What is the mass of 1.00 mol of this gas?
a.
0.855 g
c.
22.4 g
b.
1.25 g
d.
28.0 g
 

 99. 
The ideal gas law is equivalent to Charles's law when
a.
the number of moles and the pressure are constant.
b.
the number of moles and the temperature are constant.
c.
the volume equals 22.4 L.
d.
R equals zero.
 

 100. 
Calculate the approximate temperature of a 0.50 mol sample of gas at 750 mm Hg and a volume of 12 L.
a.
–7°C
c.
15°C
b.
11°C
d.
288°C
 



 
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