Name: 
 

gateway practice



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Cells use ____ for energy storage and insulation.
a.
proteins
c.
lipids
b.
carbohydrates
d.
enzymes
 

 2. 

A protein that facilitates chemical reactions is called a(n) ____.
a.
enzyme
c.
lipid
b.
amino acid
d.
nucleic acid
 

 3. 

Cells build macromolecules from many small molecules. This chain of small molecules is called a(n)____.
a.
enzyme
c.
polymer
b.
nucleic acid
d.
isomer
 

 4. 

Cells rely on ____ to store and release energy.
a.
lipids
c.
carbohydrates
b.
proteins
d.
glycerol
 

 5. 

Starch and cellulose are both polymers of ____.
a.
sucrose
c.
glycogen
b.
glucose
d.
fructose
 

 6. 

The formula C57 H110 O6 is an example of a ____.
a.
lipid
c.
nucleic acid
b.
carbohydrate
d.
protein
 

 7. 

A macromolecule that stores cellular information in the form of a code is a(n) ____.
a.
nucleic acid
c.
carbohydrate
b.
enzyme
d.
lipid
 

 8. 

RNA and DNA are examples of ____.
a.
amino acids
c.
carbohydrates
b.
lipids
d.
nucleic acids
 

 9. 

Chromosomes are produced in what part of a eukaryotic cell?
a.
cell wall
c.
ribosomes
b.
nucleus
d.
vacuole
 

 10. 

Which organelle shown in the diagram below provides energy for the cell by performing aerobic respiration?
mc010-1.jpg
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 11. 

Vesicles formed in Golgi bodies are called ____.
a.
mitochondria
c.
ribosomes
b.
lysosomes
d.
chromatin
 

 12. 

Which of the following is NOT associated with eukaryotes?
a.
nucleus
c.
capsule
b.
organelles
d.
multicellular
 

 13. 

The substance drawn below is produced in what part of a eukaryotic cell?
mc013-1.jpg
a.
cell wall
c.
ribosomes
b.
nucleus
d.
vacuoles
 

 14. 

The membrane-bound structures that are found in eukaryotic cells are called ____.
a.
organs
c.
organelles
b.
cytoplasm
d.
Golgi apparati
 

 15. 

A piece of celery is placed in a bowl of icy-cold water. Which of the following best describes what happens to the cells of the celery?
a.
They shrivel.
b.
Water moves out of the cells by osmosis.
c.
The water vacuoles fill with water and the cells plump up.
d.
Water moves out of the cells by active transport and then dynamic equilibrium is reached.
 

 16. 

In the diagram below, the concentration of ions and molecules outside the cell is MOST likely ____.
mc016-1.jpg
a.
twice as high as the concentration of ions and molecules inside the cell
b.
the same as the concentration of ions and molecules inside the cell
c.
lower than the concentration of ions and molecules inside the cell
d.
composed of a different variety of ions and molecules than is inside the cell
 

 17. 

If a cell contains a 10% concentration of salt and is surrounded by water that also contains a 10% concentration of salt, which of the following will occur?
a.
Water will leave the cell only.
c.
Water will enter and leave the cell.
b.
Water will enter the cell only.
d.
The cell will die.
 

 18. 

A drop of blood is placed in a concentrated saltwater solution. The thousands of red blood cells in the drop of blood will most likely die as a result of ____.
a.
water entering the cells, causing them to swell and burst
b.
water leaving the cells, causing them to shrink and shrivel
c.
salt molecules entering the cells and binding with oxygen
d.
the white blood cells attacking the invading salt molecules
 

 19. 

Active transport of materials through a membrane against a concentration gradient requires ____.
a.
a carrier protein and energy
c.
an isotonic solution
b.
energy only
d.
a carrier protein only
 

 20. 

The arrows in the diagrams below indicate the movement of salt molecules through two cell membranes. The X’s represent salt molecules. Which two processes do the diagrams illustrate?
mc020-1.jpg
a.
diffusion and active transport
b.
dehydration synthesis and diffusion
c.
diffusion and osmosis
d.
passive transport and cellular respiration
 

 21. 

In which of the following cell organelles does protein synthesis occur?
a.
chloroplasts
c.
nucleus
b.
mitochondria
d.
ribosomes
 

 22. 

Which process produces the greatest amount of ATP per glucose molecule metabolized?
a.
respiration
c.
fermentation
b.
digestion
d.
photosynthesis
 

 23. 

In which structure in both plant and animal cells does cellular respiration occur?
a.
mitochondrion
c.
endoplasmic reticulum
b.
ribosome
d.
vacuole
 

 24. 

Of the following processes, which does NOT happen in meiosis?
a.
crossing over
c.
replication
b.
disjunction
d.
transpiration
 

 25. 

Which of the following statements is true?
a.
In both mitosis and meiosis, the chromosomes separate once.
b.
In both mitosis and meiosis, the chromosomes separate twice.
c.
In mitosis the chromosomes separate once, while in meiosis the chromosomes separate twice.
d.
In meiosis the chromosomes separate once, while in mitosis the chromosomes separate twice.
 

 26. 

Which of these represents a parasitic relationship?
a.
whale/plankton
c.
Spanish moss/trees
b.
tick/dog
d.
shark/fish
 

 27. 

What type of relationship between two organisms results in benefits to both organisms?
a.
parasitism
c.
equalism
b.
mutualism
d.
commensalism
 

 28. 

A relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is neither aided nor harmed is ____.
a.
parasitism
c.
mutualism
b.
synergism
d.
commensalism
 

 29. 

Mutualism is one type of ____.
a.
predator-prey relationship
c.
symbiosis
b.
ecosystem
d.
niche
 

 30. 

Spanish moss growing on tree branches is an example of ____.
a.
parasitism
c.
mutualism
b.
commensalism
d.
tropism
 

 31. 

A relationship in which one organism benefits at the expense of another is ____.
a.
parasitism
c.
mutualism
b.
symbiosis
d.
commensalism
 

 32. 

Ants living on acacia trees is an example of ____.
a.
parasitism
c.
commensalism
b.
mutualism
d.
equalism
 

 33. 

The permanent, close association among organisms of different species is ____.
a.
an ecosystem
c.
mutualism
b.
symbolism
d.
symbiosis
 

 34. 

Examine the diagram below. The diagram shows the living and non-living factors that interact in a particular geographic area. The term that best describes these interactions is ____.
mc034-1.jpg
a.
biome
c.
ecosystem
b.
environment
d.
population
 

 35. 

An abiotic factor affecting the behavior and survival of organisms, such as birds and insects, in a community is the ____.
a.
number of secondary consumers
c.
number of herbivores
b.
number of daylight hours
d.
incidence of harmful bacteria
 

 36. 

Certain plants and animals have adaptations that enable them to survive in a desert ecosystem. The MOST important abiotic factor that affects these adaptations is the ____.
a.
number of consumers
c.
amount of rainfall
b.
number of producers
d.
temperature range
 

 37. 

Relationships among different organisms in an environment are known as ____.
a.
interactive biomass
c.
diversifications
b.
biotic factors
d.
communal activities
 

 38. 

Non-living aspects of the environment are called ____.
a.
biotic factors
c.
limiting factors
b.
living factors
d.
abiotic factors
 

 39. 

Two abiotic factors affecting the distribution of organisms in the ocean are ____.
a.
light and temperature
c.
temperature and precipitation
b.
humidity and altitude
d.
light and latitude
 

 40. 

Examine the pyramid below. A food pyramid is a way of showing how energy in an ecosystem flows from one organism to another. Based on this pyramid, which organism has the MOST energy available to it?
mc040-1.jpg
a.
grass
c.
starling
b.
grasshopper
d.
owl
 

 41. 

Producers obtain energy primarily from ____.
a.
nutrients in the soil
c.
water
b.
the Sun
d.
decomposing organisms
 

 42. 

Which of these statements is TRUE about the food web shown below?
mc042-1.jpg
a.
Grizzly bears have the highest biomass.
b.
Grasses have the lowest biomass.
c.
Deer have a higher biomass than do grizzly bears.
d.
Seeds have a lower biomass than do chipmunks.
 

 43. 

The diagram below shows a food web. Which organism would most likely be located at position X in the role of a producer?
mc043-1.jpg
a.
bird
c.
snake
b.
mushroom
d.
grass
 

 44. 

A behavior that needs practice is usually ____.
a.
innate
c.
fast
b.
a response
d.
commensalism
 

 45. 

A dog fetching a paper is an example of ____ behavior.
a.
innate
c.
parental care
b.
learned
d.
migration
 

 46. 

Certain seals will swim to warmer waters when ready to ____.
a.
feed
c.
protect the adults
b.
reproduce
d.
become more social
 

 47. 

All of these are examples of innate animal behavior EXCEPT for ____.
a.
a duckling forming a social attachment to its mother
b.
a frog’s tongue that flicks out to catch an insect
c.
male fireflies flashing distinct light patterns to attract females of the same species
d.
a species of bird migrating to South America when it is winter in North America
 

 48. 

Frogs and crickets making sounds is an example of ____ behavior.
a.
courting
c.
learned
b.
protective
d.
food-finding
 

 49. 

All behavior starts with a ____.
a.
stimulus
c.
response
b.
reward
d.
smell
 

 50. 

The simplest innate behavior is ____.
a.
imprinting
c.
an instinct
b.
a reflex
d.
conditioning
 

 51. 

When animals use past experiences to help them in new situations, they are using a form of reasoning called ____.
a.
imprinting
c.
insight
b.
cyclic behavior
d.
instinct
 

 52. 

Examine the food web below. Which of the following organisms could NOT be identified as a secondary consumer?
mc052-1.jpg
a.
bird
c.
lizard
b.
grasshopper
d.
snake
 

 53. 

The bacteria of decay could be classified as ____.
a.
producers
c.
secondary consumers
b.
primary consumers
d.
decomposers
 

 54. 

Farmers often introduce ladybugs into crops as predators to reduce the number of aphids feeding on their plants. In a short time, the number of aphids significantly decreases. This is an example of ____.
a.
migration
c.
a host-parasite relationship
b.
population equilibrium
d.
abiotic control of pests
 

 55. 

In a forest ecosystem, which factor is least important in determining which organisms will survive?
a.
amount of sunlight
c.
number of decomposers
b.
amount of rainfall
d.
range of temperatures
 

 56. 

Examine the diagram below. The food web shows how many secondary (second-order) consumers?
mc056-1.jpg
a.
none
c.
two
b.
one
d.
three
 

 57. 

The gypsy moth was brought to the United States in 1869 in an attempt to start a silkworm industry. Escaping soon after, the gypsy moth has become a major tree pest in the forests of northeastern United States and southeastern Canada.
What is the MOST significant conclusion that can be drawn from the events reported.
a.
Imported species can disrupt a balanced ecosystem.
b.
Gypsy moths produce silk.
c.
Imported species have difficulty adapting to a new environment.
d.
Gypsy moths are herbivores.
 

 58. 

Alligators in wetland regions normally feed on animals such as shorebirds. Shorebirds usually feed on small fish and frogs. Recently, scientists released a large number of alligators into a wetland region. Scientists expected that as a result of this increase in the alligator population, the population of small fish and frogs would ____.
a.
remain about the same
c.
become extinct
b.
rapidly decrease
d.
notably increase
 

 59. 

A major threat to ecosystems is the activity brought about by ____.
a.
plants
c.
algae
b.
humans
d.
recycled nutrients
 

 60. 

Extinction or loss of one species each day on Earth is attributed to ____.
a.
humans
c.
acid rain
b.
wild animals
d.
the greenhouse effect
 

 61. 

Habitat destruction actually means ____.
a.
too much land is being set aside for endangered animal use
b.
the place where an animal lives is being conserved
c.
humans are destroying or taking over the land once used by animals
d.
destruction of animals is occurring
 

 62. 

Forest destruction has been implicated in the rise of carbon dioxide levels during the past 50 years. How can the two be related?
a.
Trees release carbon dioxide when chopped down.
b.
The process of cutting wood from lumber adds carbon dioxide to the air.
c.
Respiration by trees adds more carbon dioxide to the air than photosynthesis can remove.
d.
Fewer trees mean less photosynthesis and therefore more carbon dioxide is left in the air.
 

 63. 

Energy from sunlight is trapped by chlorophyll located in the ____.
a.
citric acid cycle
c.
electron transport chain
b.
mitochondria
d.
thylakoid membranes
 

 64. 

In the complete process of photosynthesis, the ____.
a.
Calvin cycle yields CO2
b.
light reactions release oxygen
c.
Calvin cycle breaks down H2O
d.
light reactions produce NADP + from NADPH + H+
 

 65. 

The starch that plants use for food storage is an example of a ____.
a.
protein
c.
lipid
b.
polysaccharide
d.
sucrose polymer
 

 66. 

Which process uses carbon dioxide (CO2), water (H2O), and light energy to produce glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen (O2)?
a.
fermentation
c.
exocytosis
b.
photosynthesis
d.
respiration
 

 67. 

How many carbon dioxide molecules (CO2) result from the respiration of six sugar molecules?
a.
6
c.
24
b.
12
d.
36
 

 68. 

During photosynthesis, plants ____.
a.
take in oxygen and carbon dioxide
b.
take in oxygen and give off carbon dioxide
c.
give off oxygen and carbon dioxide
d.
take in carbon dioxide and give off oxygen
 

 69. 

The process by which carbon dioxide and water vapor are exchanged through stomata on leaf surfaces is called ____.
a.
diffusion
c.
transpiration
b.
photosynthesis
d.
tropism
 

 70. 

Plants use the Sun’s energy to make glucose through the process of photosynthesis. The energy stored in glucose is released in the process of ____.
a.
cellular respiration
c.
replication
b.
digestion
d.
transpiration
 

 71. 

The carbon dioxide that we breathe out has come originally from our ____.
a.
cells
c.
diaphragm
b.
skin
d.
urinary bladder
 

 72. 

When you inhale, oxygen is transported to your body’s cells. Which of these living systems does this process require?
a.
respiratory and circulatory only
b.
respiratory, circulatory, and digestive only
c.
muscular, respiratory, and circulatory only
d.
reproductive and circulatory only
 

 73. 

The oxygen in Earth’s atmosphere comes mainly from ____.
a.
the chemical separation of water molecules in the oceans
b.
the chemical breakdown of minerals in the soil
c.
the process of photosynthesis occurring in green plants and algae
d.
the process of cellular respiration occurring in all organisms
 

 74. 

The respiratory system helps the body remove ____.
a.
oxygen
c.
urea
b.
carbon dioxide
d.
sweat
 

 75. 

Carbon dioxide, water, and energy are all products of ____.
a.
photosynthesis
c.
cell division
b.
germination
d.
respiration
 

 76. 

Carbon ____ through the carbon cycle.
a.
increases in quantity
c.
follows various paths
b.
decreases in quantity
d.
follows a single path
 

 77. 

The total amount of carbon on Earth remains the same through time. Animals acquire the carbon stored in plants when they eat carbohydrates. Carbon returns to the atmosphere when animals exhale carbon dioxide as a by-product of respiration. This carbon dioxide gas is used by plants to manufacture complex carbohydrates through the process of ____.
a.
photosynthesis
c.
respiration
b.
protein synthesis
d.
transpiration
 

 78. 

The water in Earth’s atmosphere comes partly from ____.
a.
the chemical separation of water molecules in the oceans
b.
precipitation such as rain, snowfall and sleet
c.
transpiration of trees in the process of photosynthesis
d.
the melting of polar ice caps
 

 79. 

Some green plants have nodules on their roots, which contain bacteria that change the nitrogen in the air into forms useful to plants and animals. These bacteria are an example of ____.
a.
how bacteria are dangerous
b.
how microorganisms are dangerous to plants
c.
how bacteria can play a beneficial role
d.
why scientists work to discover new antibiotics
 

 80. 

What is the main role of plants in the water cycle?
a.
They absorb hydrogen from the air and release water into the soil.
b.
They absorb water from the air during respiration.
c.
They gather water molecules that are released during seed dispersal.
d.
They release water into the air during transpiration.
 

 81. 

The source of energy in the water cycle is ____.
a.
carbon dioxide
c.
the sun
b.
plants
d.
oxygen
 

 82. 

Cellular respiration occurs in ____.
a.
only animals
c.
only protists
b.
only plants
d.
all living things
 

 83. 

As a result of strenuous exercise, muscles build up an excess of ____.
a.
citric acid
c.
oxygen
b.
lactic acid
d.
carbon monoxide
 

 84. 

What are two reactants of aerobic respiration?
a.
glucose and oxygen
c.
carbon dioxide and oxygen
b.
carbon dioxide and chlorophyll
d.
water and nitrogen
 

 85. 

The stage of cellular respiration that is anaerobic is ____.
a.
the citric acid cycle
c.
the electron transport chain
b.
glycolysis
d.
CO2 formation
 

 86. 

The second stage of cellular respiration is ____.
a.
the citric acid cycle
c.
the electron transport chain
b.
glycolysis
d.
CO2 formation
 

 87. 

The electron transport chain is extremely efficient, producing ____ ATP molecules.
a.
22
c.
32
b.
24
d.
38
 

 88. 

The diagram below shows a portion of a DNA molecule. The letters in the diagram represent the four bases: adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C). Which of the following sequences of bases do the question marks represent?
mc088-1.jpg
a.
C-A-C
c.
G-A-C
b.
G-C-A
d.
T-C-A
 

 89. 

The arrow in the diagram below points to a structure called a ____.
mc089-1.jpg
a.
base
c.
nucleotide
b.
hydrogen bond
d.
cell wall
 

 90. 

Which base is the complementary strand of the base shown below?
mc090-1.jpg
a.
adenine
c.
cytosine
b.
guanine
d.
uracil
 

 91. 

The DNA message depends on the order of the ____.
a.
nitrogen bases
c.
sugars
b.
acids
d.
genes
 

 92. 

The DNA in identical twins is ____.
a.
very different
c.
opposite
b.
the same
d.
very similar
 

 93. 

When DNA replicates, each new DNA molecule has ____.
a.
two new strands
c.
two original strands
b.
one original strand and one new strand
d.
one new strand
 

 94. 

In the lab, a molecular biologist created artificial messenger RNA (mRNA) containing only uracil nucleotides. The polypeptides synthesized from this mRNA consisted of chains containing only one amino acid, phenylalanine.

Based on these results, what might the molecular biologist conclude?
a.
The sequence U-U-U does not relate to any amino acid.
b.
The sequence U-U-U translates into the amino acid phenylalanine.
c.
Protein synthesis can only occur in living cells.
d.
Protein synthesis can only occur within the endoplasmic reticulum.
 

 95. 

RNA is essential for the building of proteins. Which of these is NOT a type of RNA?
a.
messenger RNA
c.
transfer RNA
b.
mitochondrial RNA
d.
ribosomal RNA
 

 96. 

DNA forms the code for the making of ____.
a.
proteins
c.
fats
b.
genes
d.
chromosomes
 

 97. 

A short section of DNA that codes for a trait is a ____.
a.
protein
c.
chromosome
b.
sugar
d.
gene
 

 98. 

The messages of the genes of chromosomes are carried to ribosomes by ____.
a.
DNA
c.
RNA
b.
protein
d.
acid
 

 99. 

Some bacteria produce an enzyme that makes them resistant to penicillin. Their offspring will also MOST likely be resistant to penicillin because ____.
a.
bacteria have an unusually high rate of mutation
b.
penicillin is no longer effective against bacteria
c.
bacteria produce a large amount of antibodies
d.
bacteria reproduce asexually
 

 100. 

When plants reproduce, which process replicates their chromosomes?
a.
photosynthesis
c.
meiosis
b.
fertilization
d.
pollination
 

 101. 

For asexual reproduction to be successful, a cell nucleus divides to form two new nuclei, each containing a complete copy of the parental chromosomes. This process is called ____.
a.
fermentation
c.
mitosis
b.
meiosis
d.
non-disjunction
 

 102. 

If two organisms are able to reproduce successfully, they MUST be in the same ____.
a.
genus
c.
phylum
b.
species
d.
family
 

 103. 

In the below diagram of a flower, the structure labeled with the letter “Y” helps the flower to ____.
mc103-1.jpg
a.
transport water
c.
reproduce
b.
absorb sunlight
d.
excrete waste
 

 104. 

Examine the information in the box below. In fruit flies, the allele for eye color is a sex-linked trait. In other words, this gene is found only on the X chromosome. Which of the following fruit fly crosses could produce a white-eyed female?
R = red eyes
XX = female
r = white eyes
XY = male
a.
XRXR mc104-1.jpg XrY
c.
XRXr mc104-3.jpg XRY
b.
XRXr mc104-2.jpg XrY
d.
XrXr mc104-4.jpg XRY
 

 105. 

A married couple plans to have children. The wife has blue eyes (bb), and her husband has brown eyes (Bb). The husband’s mother had blue eyes. Based on the Punnet square below, what percentage of their children could they predict will have blue eyes?
mc105-1.jpg
a.
25%
c.
75%
b.
50%
d.
100%
 

 106. 

Karen has two pet guinea pigs with black fur. When her guinea pigs mated, one of their four offspring had white fur, while the others had black fur. Which of the following conclusions is most likely true for Karen’s guinea pigs?
a.
Both parents are heterozygous for the white-fur trait, which is dominant.
b.
Both parents are heterozygous for the white-fur trait, which is recessive.
c.
Both parents are homozygous for the white-fur trait, which is dominant.
d.
Both parents are homozygous for the white-fur trait, which is recessive.
 

 107. 

In a certain type of corn plant, the gene for smooth seeds is a dominant trait (S), while the gene for wrinkled seeds is recessive (s). Based on the Punnett square below, what kinds of seeds will the offspring of these two corn plants have?
mc107-1.jpg
a.
100% will be smooth.
b.
50% will be smooth, and 50% will be wrinkled.
c.
75% will be smooth, and 25% will be wrinkled.
d.
25% will be smooth, and 75% will be wrinkled.
 

 108. 

Some humans can roll their tongues, while others cannot. Simple dominant traits, such as tongue rolling, are determined in humans by ____.
a.
cleaved DNA
b.
a point mutation on the X chromosome from the mother only
c.
dominant alleles from the father only
d.
dominant alleles from either the father or the mother, or both
 

 109. 

In humans, the gene for normal vision (C) is dominant to the gene for color blindness (c). Color blindness is a sex-linked trait. Which of the following would be the genotype for a colorblind male?
a.
XCY
c.
XCXc
b.
XcY
d.
XcXc
 

 110. 

In fruit flies, the gene for long wings is dominant to the gene for short wings. In order for a researcher to find out if a long-winged fruit fly is homozygous or heterozygous for long wings, the researcher should cross the long-winged fruit fly with ____.
a.
a purebred, short-winged fruit fly
c.
a heterozygous, short-winged fruit fly
b.
a purebred, long-winged fruit fly
d.
a heterozygous, long-winged fruit fly
 

 111. 

A black-feathered chicken and a white-feathered chicken are crossed by a farmer. All of the offspring chickens have both black and white feathers. Which of the following does this exemplify?
a.
genetic mutation
c.
dominant alleles
b.
codominant alleles
d.
multiple alleles
 

 112. 

If the bacteria Serratia marcesens grows at 25°C, it is red. If the bacteria grows at 30°C, it is cream-colored instead of red. This example is evidence that ____.
a.
bacteria grow more rapidly at higher temperatures
b.
environmental factors influence gene expression
c.
bacteria reproduce more slowly at lower temperatures
d.
different internal hormones are released at different temperatures
 

 113. 

The incidence of mutations in fruit flies will most likely increase after they are exposed to ____.
a.
ultraviolet radiation
c.
carbon dioxide gas
b.
bacteria
d.
very cold temperatures
 

 114. 

To be inherited by future generations, a gene mutation would have to occur in ____.
a.
brain cells
c.
sex cells
b.
liver cells
d.
skin cells
 

 115. 

A mutation is helpful depending on whether it makes the living thing ____.
a.
larger
c.
better adapted
b.
smaller
d.
another color
 

 116. 

A mutation is a change in the ____ of an organism.
a.
color
c.
environment
b.
DNA code
d.
birthrate
 

 117. 

A mutation in which a single base is added or deleted from DNA is called ____.
a.
frameshift mutation
c.
chromosomal mutation
b.
point mutation
d.
nucleotide mutation
 

 118. 

Cyanide, benzene, formaldehyde, and radiation are all examples of ____.
a.
chemicals
c.
mutagens
b.
messenger RNA
d.
amino acids
 

 119. 

Punctuated equilibrium in evolution results in ____.
a.
small changes over a long period of time
b.
large changes over a long period of time
c.
small changes over a short period of time
d.
large changes over a short period of time
 

 120. 

A mutation in the human gene responsible for producing hemoglobin in the blood can cause a disorder known as sickle-cell anemia. The parents of children born with sickle-cell anemia usually have no symptoms of the disorder, but tests indicate that both parents have the mutated gene.

What is the best explanation for this set of circumstances?
a.
The gene for sickle-cell anemia is dominant, and both parents are homozygous.
b.
The gene for sickle-cell anemia is dominant, and both parents are heterozygous.
c.
The gene for sickle-cell anemia is recessive, and both parents are homozygous.
d.
The gene for sickle-cell anemia is recessive, and both parents are heterozygous.
 

 121. 

One use of recombinant DNA technology is to correct genetic disorders. This application is called ____.
a.
DNA fingerprinting
c.
chromosomal mutation
b.
cloning
d.
gene therapy
 

 122. 

Examine the Punnet square below. A married couple plans to have children. The husband (XHY) and wife (XHXh) both have blood that clots normally. Which of these combinations will produce a child who suffers from hemophilia?
mc122-1.jpg
a.
XHXH
c.
XHXh
b.
XHY
d.
XhY
 

 123. 

Out of four children, the expected number of girls with hemophilia is ____.
a.
none
c.
two
b.
one
d.
four
 

 124. 

What is the name of the process through which scientists create genetically identical organisms?
a.
sequencing
c.
recombining
b.
cloning
d.
splicing
 

 125. 

An animal that has not been cloned in the laboratory is the ____.
a.
cow
c.
frog
b.
pig
d.
bear
 

 126. 

Recombinant DNA is used in making ____.
a.
insulin
c.
diabetes
b.
bacteria
d.
wires
 

 127. 

A transgenic organism contains ____.
a.
enzymes
c.
alleles of the host organism
b.
genes from another species
d.
human chromosomes
 

 128. 

The emergence of harmful, recessive traits is one disadvantage of ____.
a.
the human genome
c.
genetic equilibrium
b.
selective breeding
d.
DNA sequencing
 

 129. 

One advantage of captive breeding in zoos is that ____.
a.
it lessens a zoo’s dependence on wild populations
b.
zoos tend to select only the most attractive animals to breed
c.
it creates a surplus of animals that may be hard to place
d.
animals bred in captivity cannot survive in the wild
 

 130. 

The gray wolf is classified as Canis lupus. The domestic dog, formerly classified as Canis familiaris, is now classified as Canis lupus familiaris. This change reflects biologists’ new belief that the domestic dog and the gray wolf belong to the same ____.
a.
kingdom
c.
species
b.
genus
d.
phylum
 

 131. 

According to the classification table below, what is the LOWEST taxonomic level that jackrabbits and cottontails have in common?
Classifications of Rabbits
Level
Jackrabbit
Cottontail
Kingdom
Animalia
Animalia
Phylum
Chordata
Chordata
Class
Mammalia
Mammalia
Order
Lagomorpha
Lagomorpha
Family
Leporidae
Leporidae
Genus
Lepus
Sylvilagus
Species
californicus
floridanus
a.
class
c.
genus
b.
family
d.
order
 

 132. 

In which kingdom is the organism pictured below classified?
mc132-1.jpg
a.
animals
c.
plants
b.
fungi
d.
protists
 

 133. 

A polar bear’s scientific name is Ursus maritimus, while the scientific name of a brown bear is Ursus arctos. According to this information, it is apparent that the polar bear and the brown bear are ____.
a.
not in the same family
b.
the same animal called by two different names
c.
the same species
d.
the same genus
 

 134. 

A student collects seashells from a beach while on vacation. The animals that once inhabited these shells most likely belonged to which of the following classes of the animal kingdom?
a.
Osteichthyes
c.
Bivalvia
b.
Echinoidea
d.
Arachnida
 

 135. 

About 30 to 50 percent of all species are found ____.
a.
on farms
c.
in rain forests
b.
in oceans
d.
on the prairie
 

 136. 

In which climate would you expect to discover many different types of animals living?
a.
warm and moist
c.
hot and dry
b.
cold and snowy
d.
cold and dry
 

 137. 

Some plants have small leaves that are covered with a waxy coating. For which type of habitat are such plants BEST adapted?
a.
temperate forest
c.
desert
b.
grassland
d.
tropical rain forest
 

 138. 

The graph below shows the changes in the populations of two animals that are part of a forest ecosystem. Which is a reason for the changes in these populations after 1985?
mc138-1.jpg
a.
All the plant populations in this ecosystem decreased.
b.
The wolf population preyed on the moose population.
c.
The wolf population competed for food more successfully than the moose population.
d.
An epidemic of disease reduced the wolf population.
 

 139. 

Sepals and petals along with stamens and pistils are present in ____.
a.
mosses
c.
gymnosperms
b.
ferns
d.
angiosperms
 

 140. 

Which of the following organisms does NOT have a closed circulatory system?
a.
earthworm
c.
grasshopper
b.
frog
d.
human
 

 141. 

Which of the following classes of animals includes females that develop a hollow, muscular organ called a uterus?
a.
amphibians
c.
mammals
b.
invertebrates
d.
reptiles
 

 142. 

All of the following cell structures are normally found in consumers EXCEPT ____.
a.
mitochondria
c.
chloroplasts
b.
ribosomes
d.
nuclei
 

 143. 

Which of the diagrams below represents the method of reproduction that is characteristic of vertebrates?
a.
mc143-1.jpg
c.
mc143-3.jpg
b.
mc143-2.jpg
d.
mc143-4.jpg
 

 144. 

One kind of evidence that life existed in the past is a ____.
a.
mutation
c.
variation
b.
fossil
d.
selection
 

 145. 

Which conclusion may be drawn when comparing fossils found in previously undisturbed strata of sedimentary rock?
a.
Fossils in the upper strata are younger than those in the lower strata.
b.
Fossils in the upper strata are older than those in the lower strata.
c.
Fossils in the upper strata are generally less complex than those in the lower strata.
d.
There are no fossils in the upper strata that resemble those in the lower strata.
 

 146. 

Deep-sea vents are openings in Earth’s crust far below the surface of the ocean. Life is abundant near these vents, and many organisms that live near deep-sea vents are chemosynthetic. Which of the following statements is true?
a.
There is limited oxygen near deep-sea vents.
b.
These organisms probably evolved early in Earth’s history.
c.
These organisms are producers.
d.
All of the answers are correct.
 

 147. 

The theory that whales evolved from ancestors that had legs is most likely based on information gathered from ____.
a.
embryology research
c.
the fossil record
b.
population studies
d.
DNA analysis
 

 148. 

See the illustration below. What would happen to the beetle population if, over a period of many years, the bark on all the trees of this type became spotted?
mc148-1.jpg
a.
The population of spotted beetles would increase and the population of plain beetles would decrease.
b.
The population of plain beetles would increase and the population of spotted beetles would decrease.
c.
The population of spotted beetles would increase and the population of plain beetles would increase.
d.
The population of plain beetles would increase and the population of spotted beetles would stay the same.
 

 149. 

Following a fire at a nuclear facility, there was a significant increase in the number of cases of lung cancer reported by the employees who were exposed to the fire. Radioactive particles entered the lungs of these employees, causing mutations that led to lung cancer. Some of the employees plan to have children. How will these mutations affect the employees’ future offspring?
a.
The offspring will be unaffected by the parents’ lung cancer.
b.
The offspring will likely be diagnosed with lung cancer at a young age.
c.
The offspring will develop mutated lung cells while still in the womb.
d.
The offspring will possess mutations that will spread through the respiratory system.
 

 150. 

If one population of sparrows adapted a type of feather that made it easier to survive, this sparrow population might increase because ____.
a.
the sparrows with the better feathers would live longer and pass the new trait onto their young
b.
the sparrows would have fewer owls hunting them
c.
there would be many more grasshoppers available for each sparrow to eat
d.
the sparrows that did not adapt new wings would die, leaving more grasshoppers for the remaining sparrows
 

 151. 

Many scientists believe that, over time, the horse changed from a small animal to the large one we know today. These scientists would say that the horse ____.
a.
evolved
c.
fossilized
b.
cloned
d.
did not adapt
 

 152. 

Which of the following was NOT part of Darwin’s proposals?
a.
There is overpopulation in nature.
b.
There is variation in the individuals of the population.
c.
Variations are caused by mutations.
d.
There is natural selection.
 

 153. 

Based on information obtained from geologists, Darwin already knew during his voyage on the Beagle that ____.
a.
the theory of evolution had been established and was accepted
b.
environmental features of Earth do change
c.
life forms do not change their features
d.
the Galapagos Islands were soon to be submerged under the ocean
 

 154. 

Darwin stated that life forms show descent with modification. This means that ____.
a.
new life forms descend from old life forms but they do not change
b.
modification among descendants occurs only in the first generation
c.
functional changes never occur in descendants
d.
structural changes occur from one group of descendants to the next
 

 155. 

Similarities between Galapagos organisms and organisms of distant lands allowed Darwin to infer that despite their uniqueness, Galapagos life forms ____.
a.
never underwent natural selection
b.
flew or swam to the islands thousands of years ago from other land areas
c.
shared nothing in common with life forms of distant lands
d.
were brought over to the islands by early explorers
 

 156. 

No two eggplants are exactly alike in shape, color, or size. Darwin would explain this by saying that ____.
a.
variations exist in any population
b.
mutations occurred to form these different eggplants
c.
eggplant differences result from overproduction
d.
chance was responsible for all the differences seen
 

 157. 

The forelegs of a cat and a bat are examples of ____.
a.
comparative biochemistry
c.
analogous structures
b.
homologous structures
d.
comparative embryology
 

 158. 

In recent years, pollution has decreased. Since that time, it would be expected that the frequency of the allele for melanin in the gene pool has ____.
a.
increased
c.
remained the same
b.
decreased
d.
been eliminated
 

 159. 

A population in which the frequency of alleles remains the same over generations is said to be ____.
a.
dormant
c.
experiencing genetic drift
b.
adaptive
d.
in genetic equilibrium
 

 160. 

Individuals are more likely to inherit recessive traits if ____.
a.
genetic equilibrium occurs
c.
the number of potential mates increases
b.
a gene pool is large
d.
a gene pool is small
 

 161. 

An enzyme found in mitochondria has the same sequence of amino acids in both chimpanzees and humans. This observation supports the hypothesis that ____.
a.
chimpanzees and humans have similar diets.
b.
chimpanzees and humans have a common ancestor.
c.
amino acids are a characteristic of all animals.
d.
lower organisms are not able to synthesize proteins.
 



 
Check Your Work     Start Over