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Eco Final Exam Practice

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 

 1. 
biodiversity treaty ? an important result of the Earth Summit
 

 2. 
gene ? a piece of DNA that codes a specific trait
 

 3. 
endangered species ? species that are native to and found only within a limited area
 

 4. 
poaching ? a piece of DNA that codes a specific trait
 

 5. 
ecotourism ? a form of tourist that supports the conservation and sustainable development of ecologically unique area
 

 6. 
germ plasm ? any form of genetic material
 

 7. 
exotice species ? a species that is not native to a particular region
 

 8. 
threatened species ? a species that has a declining population and that is likely to becomed endangered if it is not protected
 

 9. 
biodiversity ? the nimber and variety of different species in a given area
 

 10. 
habitat conservation plan ? an important result of the Earth Summit
 

 11. 
endemic species ? a species that is not native to a particular region
 

 12. 
endemic species ? a species that is not native to a particular region
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 13. 
Which of the following situations best describes the use of a renewable resource?
a.
filling a car with gasoline
c.
mining copper
b.
building wooden furniture
d.
burning coal in a power plant
 

 14. 
During the _____ period(s), humans altered their habitats.
a.
hunter-gatherer
c.
Industrial Revolution
b.
agricultural revolution
d.
All of the above
 

 15. 
In which country is the population likely to be increasing most rapidly?
a.
Kenya
c.
Australia
b.
Germany
d.
Norway
 

 16. 
Why is the world’s loss of biodiversity a source of concern?
a.
Humans depend upon other organisms for food and oxygen.
b.
Species extinctions have been rare throughout history.
c.
Loss of biodiversity is not a concern because extinctions are common.
d.
Both (a) and (b)
 

 17. 
_____ is a biodegradable material that becomes a pollutant if allowed to accumulate more rapidly than it can decompose.
a.
Plastic
c.
Newspaper
b.
Mercury
d.
Metal from junk cars
 

 18. 
Which of the following describes the depletion of a renewable resource?
a.
hunting of excess deer to maintain a healthy population size
b.
intensive cultivation of farmland that exhausts soil nutrients
c.
mining coal
d.
increasing use of solar energy to generate electrical power
 

 19. 
All of the following issues involve environmental science except
a.
measuring smog levels in cities.
b.
asking people questions about the cost of various resources.
c.
studying the loss of plant and animal species.
d.
publishing the results of a study on fossil fuel depletion.
 

 20. 
Which country is most likely to have either a stabilized or a slowly growing population?
a.
India
c.
Mexico
b.
Canada
d.
Pakistan
 

 21. 
A sustainable world would be characterized by the
a.
preservation of rare animals by relocation from natural habitats to laboratories.
b.
invention of safer storage facilities for increased amounts of toxic wastes.
c.
maximum exploitation of natural resources using more advanced technologies.
d.
indefinite existence of human populations in a healthy and prosperous condition.
 

 22. 
The group that does not receive the experimental treatment in an experiment is the
a.
control group.
c.
data.
b.
experimental group.
d.
variable.
 

 23. 
What essential characteristic does a good experiment have?
a.
A control group is given the experimental treatment.
b.
A single variable is tested.
c.
A control is used.
d.
Both (b) and (c)
 

 24. 
When making a decision about whether or not to build a dam, you are considering an economic value when you ask which of the following questions?
a.
Will the dam provide new leisure activities?
b.
How many jobs will building the dam generate?
c.
Will building the dam destroy natural resources?
d.
Is it right to build a dam here?
 

 25. 
What are wind and water erosion not likely to affect?
a.
mountains
c.
tides
b.
rocks
d.
soil
 

 26. 
Large-scale atmospheric phenomena caused by air that is constantly in motion is known as
a.
conduction.
c.
weather.
b.
convection.
d.
hurricanes.
 

 27. 
Which of the following is Earth’s densest atmospheric layer?
a.
mesosphere
c.
thermosphere
b.
stratosphere
d.
troposphere
 

 28. 
In the troposphere, which of the following decreases as altitude increases?
a.
temperature
c.
pressure
b.
radiation
d.
Both (a) and (c)
 

 29. 
Without the greenhouse effect, Earth’s atmosphere would be _____ to support life.
a.
too hot
c.
too wet
b.
too cold
d.
lacking the oxygen
 

 30. 
Surface currents circulate in different directions, depending on the _____ in which they occur.
a.
hemisphere
c.
hydrosphere
b.
troposphere
d.
biosphere
 

 31. 
What part of Earth encompasses all areas where organisms can obtain the energy they need?
a.
biosphere
c.
atmosphere
b.
hydrosphere
d.
lithosphere
 

 32. 
The process of two species changing genetically in response to long-term interactions with each other is
a.
artificial selection.
c.
selective breeding.
b.
coevolution.
d.
resistance.
 

 33. 
Most scientists classify organisms into
a.
five kingdoms.
c.
three kingdoms.
b.
six kingdoms.
d.
two groups.
 

 34. 
Which of the following converts nitrogen in the air into a form plants can use?
a.
bacteria
c.
protists
b.
fungi
d.
animals
 

 35. 
Most land animals depend on angiosperms for
a.
reproduction.
c.
food.
b.
water.
d.
All of the above
 

 36. 
Which of the following best describes a population?
a.
members of the same species living in the same place at the same time
b.
all the red birds in an area
c.
all types of organisms living in the same place
d.
all members of the same species
 

 37. 
One way that bacteria and fungi are important to the environment is that they
a.
produce oxygen.
b.
use the sun’s energy to make their own food.
c.
are a major food source in many ecosystems.
d.
break down dead organisms.
 

 38. 
Which of the following is not a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
a.
roots
c.
leaves
b.
insects
d.
air
 

 39. 
Which gas makes up 78 percent of our atmosphere but can be used by plants only when transformed by bacteria first?
a.
nitrogen
c.
hydrogen
b.
oxygen
d.
carbon dioxide
 

 40. 
What kind of natural disaster helps some forest communities by allowing some trees to release their seeds, by clearing away deadwood, and by encouraging new growth?
a.
fire
c.
windstorm
b.
flood
d.
drought
 

 41. 
Which of the following is not a true statement about cellular respiration?
a.
It is essentially photosynthesis in reverse.
b.
Oxygen is one of the primary reactants.
c.
It produces energy for organisms to use.
d.
Sugar molecules are its primary products.
 

 42. 
The bacteria that live within the roots of a soybean plant are a critical part of the nitrogen cycle because they
a.
provide the plant with sugars needed for growth.
b.
transform nitrates into nitrogen gas for release.
c.
change atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form.
d.
release nitrogen by decomposing dead plant parts.
 

 43. 
What type of succession occurs after a natural process such as a volcanic eruption or flood?
a.
primary succession
c.
old-field succession
b.
secondary succession
d.
climax community
 

 44. 
Taiga is
a.
a cold, treeless, desert-like biome found near the North and South Poles.
b.
found mostly in Africa.
c.
a forest biome dominated by coniferous trees, such as pine, fir, and spruce.
d.
a dry, rocky biome found in the central part of South America.
 

 45. 
As you travel from the North Pole toward the equator, you would expect to see
a.
tropical rain forests, then deserts, then taiga.
b.
temperate deciduous forests, then taiga, then tropical rain forests.
c.
tundra, then grasslands, then tropical rain forests.
d.
taiga, then desert, then tundra.
 

 46. 
The distance north or south of the equator, as measured in degrees, is called
a.
altitude.
c.
longitude.
b.
latitude.
d.
magnitude.
 

 47. 
Biomes with higher temperatures and less precipitation tend to have
a.
shorter and less dense vegetation.
c.
taller and less dense vegetation.
b.
taller and denser vegetation.
d.
shorter and denser vegetation.
 

 48. 
Which of the following is located primarily in coastal areas that have Mediterranean-style climates with warm, dry summers and mild, wet winters?
a.
tallgrass prairie
c.
tundra
b.
savanna
d.
chaparral
 

 49. 
Which of the following is not an environmental function of wetlands?
a.
increasing runoff
b.
absorbing and removing pollutants from water
c.
trapping carbon that would otherwise be released into the air
d.
controlling floods
 

 50. 
The majority of marine organisms are found in
a.
deep ocean waters.
c.
fisheries.
b.
shallow, coastal waters.
d.
None of the above
 

 51. 
Why doesn’t photosynthesis occur in deep ocean water?
a.
The water temperature is too cold.
b.
There is no sunlight.
c.
There are not enough nutrients.
d.
The salinity level of the water is too high.
 

 52. 
Thick fur on deer is not an example of coevolution. Why?
a.
because thick fur is an adaptation
b.
because deer with thick fur live longer
c.
because thick fur evolved in response to a cold climate, not in response to other organisms
d.
because in the lowlands, where the climate was sunny and warm, deer that did not have thick fur became separated from other deer that did have thick fur
 

 53. 
Each of the following is an example of a parasite except
a.
a roundworm in a human’s intestine.
c.
a tick on a cat.
b.
a cow in a pasture.
d.
mistletoe on a tree.
 

 54. 
Which of the following would most likely cause a large number of density-independent deaths in a population?
a.
winter storms
c.
predators
b.
disease-carrying insects
d.
limited resources
 

 55. 
If over a long period of time, each pair of adults in a population had only two offspring and the offspring lived to reproduce, the population would
a.
grow.
c.
remain the same.
b.
shrink.
d.
disperse randomly.
 

 56. 
Which of the following has the greatest effect on reproductive potential?
a.
producing more offspring at a time
c.
having a longer life span
b.
reproducing more often
d.
reproducing earlier in life
 

 57. 
Competition for food cannot occur
a.
between two populations.
b.
among members of the same population.
c.
among populations whose niches overlap.
d.
between animals from two different ecosystems.
 

 58. 
The 1991 cholera outbreak in Lima, Peru was caused by
a.
lack of clean water.
c.
widespread malnutrition.
b.
inadequate medical care.
d.
rats and other rodents.
 

 59. 
Which of the following is not a strategy that could slow population growth?
a.
public advertising
c.
legal punishments
b.
economic incentives
d.
limiting education for women
 

 60. 
Which of the following is true of human demographic trends?
a.
In preindustrial societies, birth rates are low, and the population grows rapidly.
b.
When the average number of children born to each woman falls, the total population always increases.
c.
When birth rates and death rates are both high, the population grows slowly, if at all.
d.
Death rates rise in the third stage of the demographic transition.
 

 61. 
Between 1880 and 1930 human population doubled due to
a.
the Industrial revolution.
b.
a combination of high birth rates and low death rates.
c.
improvements in societal infrastructure and services.
d.
All of the above
 

 62. 
Scientists predict population sizes by using
a.
survivorship, migration, life expectancy, and replacement structure.
b.
age structure, fertility rate, and migration.
c.
replacement rate, fertility rate, age rates, and survivorship.
d.
age structure, survivorship, fertility rate, and migration.
 

 63. 
Populations are growing more rapidly in
a.
Italy.
c.
Japan.
b.
Canada.
d.
Peru.
 

 64. 
The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
a.
is known for trying to save endangered species through dramatic, attention-grabbing protests.
b.
is an organization of multinational corporations united to fight conservation efforts.
c.
is a collaboration of about 200 governmental agencies and 700 private conservation groups from around the world.
d.
was disbanded after the Earth Summit of 1992.
 

 65. 
Reintroducing the gray wolf in certain areas of the northwestern United States
a.
is beneficial for all of those working in that area.
b.
creates a mutualist interaction between wolves and elks.
c.
is in accordance with the U.S. Endangered Species Act of 1973.
d.
discourages hunters from hunting other animals.
 

 66. 
The fact that organisms are adapted to survive in particular environments helps to explain why
a.
captive-breeding programs are often ineffective.
b.
non-native plant species never flourish in new areas.
c.
habitat destruction accounts for most extinctions.
d.
compromise is impossible on environmental issues.
 

 67. 
The ecosystem approach to conservation is partly based on the idea that
a.
all rare species should be relocated to regional preserves.
b.
human needs are of secondary importance.
c.
keystone species are genetically superior to other organisms.
d.
a healthy biosphere requires intact ecosystems.
 

 68. 
What level of biodiversity is most commonly equated with the overall concept of biodiversity?
a.
genetic diversity
c.
ecosystem diversity
b.
species diversity
d.
All of the above
 

 69. 
How can zoos, botanic gardens, and wildlife parks help save species?
a.
by preserving threatened species from destruction.
b.
by collecting species from remote wilderness areas.
c.
by participating in captive breeding programs.
d.
Both (a) and (c)
 

 70. 
Which of the following is a true statement about surface water?
a.
All large cities use surface water as a water source.
b.
Drought conditions reduce the amount of surface water worldwide.
c.
Sluggish waters make natural lakes poor water sources.
d.
It makes up less than 1 percent of all water on Earth.
 

 71. 
Most of Earth’s fresh water is
a.
suspended in atmospheric cloud formations.
b.
held in reservoirs behind large dams.
c.
solidified at the North and South Poles.
d.
stored in large underground rock structures.
 

 72. 
The largest watershed in the United States is the
a.
Mississippi River.
c.
Colorado River.
b.
Yukon River.
d.
Rio Grande.
 

 73. 
When neighborhood residents noticed a large number of dead fish in a local creek, they traced the problem to a nearby gas station. It turned out that a tank of gasoline had developed a leak. This is an example of
a.
point-source pollution.
c.
thermal pollution.
b.
nonpoint-source pollution.
d.
groundwater pollution.
 

 74. 
Which of the following is most likely to cause conflict between two countries that share a river?
a.
The “upstream” country drills a large number of new water wells.
b.
The “upstream” country builds a series of new dams.
c.
The “downstream” country uses an increasing amount of water for irrigation.
d.
New industries dump pollutants into the river near the delta where the river empties into the ocean.
 

 75. 
Which of the following is not a true statement about the social and environmental impact of dams?
a.
Dams are built to resolve disputes between neighboring countries.
b.
Environmental concern is one reason for their decreased construction.
c.
Dams allow a river’s natural power to be converted into useful energy.
d.
Land behind the dam undergoes change because of the change in the flow of the river.
 

 76. 
What pollutant forms when automobile emissions react with oxygen gas and ultraviolet rays?
a.
ozone
c.
radon
b.
carbon dioxide
d.
sulfur dioxide
 

 77. 
Most air pollution is produced by
a.
thermal inversions.
c.
ozone layer depletion.
b.
fuel burning.
d.
volcanic eruptions.
 

 78. 
Activities such as construction and agriculture are primary sources of
a.
hydrocarbons.
c.
nitrogen oxides.
b.
volatile organic compounds.
d.
particulate matter.
 

 79. 
A true statement about carbon monoxide is that it
a.
can lower the level of oxygen carried in the blood.
b.
is a less harmful pollutant than carbon dioxide.
c.
may cause headaches but not death.
d.
has no effect on fetal development.
 

 80. 
Which of the following would cause the smallest increase in smog in an urban area?
a.
dependence on coal for heating
c.
frequent thermal inversions
b.
combustion of ethanol in cars
d.
location in a valley or basin
 

 81. 
One way radon and asbestos are similar is that they
a.
are both gaseous pollutants.
c.
cut and scar the lungs.
b.
increase the risk of cancer.
d.
are primarily outdoor air pollutants.
 

 82. 
Which of the following pollutants is most likely to reach unhealthy levels inside an office building?
a.
VOCs found in the building’s foam insulation
b.
particulates such as dust
c.
sulfur dioxide emitted in the exhaust of nearby traffic
d.
carbon dioxide released by human respiration
 

 83. 
Light pollution can be decreased by
a.
directing lighting downward.
b.
lighting billboards from below.
c.
using incandescent light bulbs.
d.
increasing the number of lights per block on a city street.
 

 84. 
When the acidity of soil increases,
a.
the pH reaches levels as high as 7.0 to 9.0.
b.
some nutrients are dissolved and washed away.
c.
the number of bacteria increases as well.
d.
Both (a) and (b)
 

 85. 
Which of the following correctly states an observation that helps to explain circulation patterns in the atmosphere?
a.
Cold air rises and warms as it rises.
b.
Warm air rises and cools as it rises.
c.
Cold air can hold more water vapor than warm air.
d.
All of the above
 

 86. 
Which of the following would occur if Earth were not tilted relative to the plane of its orbit?
a.
Temperatures at the equator would become too hot to sustain life.
b.
Temperate regions would no longer have seasonal changes in climate.
c.
All parts of Earth would receive sunlight of equal concentration.
d.
Polar ice caps would melt due to a rapid increase in global warming.
 

 87. 
A true statement about greenhouse gases is that they
a.
convert sunlight into heat energy that warms Earth.
b.
are concentrated in the stratosphere.
c.
trap heat that is radiated upward from Earth.
d.
are not affected by human activity.
 

 88. 
Which of the following statements related to global warming is not accurate?
a.
Carbon dioxide levels have risen over the last 30 years.
b.
Only fossil fuels, not living plants, release carbon dioxide when burned.
c.
Global temperature and carbon dioxide concentration are related.
d.
By itself, reforestation is not sufficient to slow global warming.
 

 89. 
Ozone holes appear in polar regions during springtime when ozone-destroying
a.
chlorine atoms are released from polar stratospheric clouds.
b.
chlorine atoms are captured by polar stratospheric clouds.
c.
CFCs are synthesized on polar stratospheric clouds.
d.
CFCs magnify ultraviolet light.
 

 90. 
Which of the following would not be a consequence of a rise in global temperature?
a.
rising sea level
b.
increased polar ice mass
c.
increased frequency of major storms
d.
increased frequency of major droughts
 

 91. 
Eliminating invasive plants and replacing them with native plants is one aspect of
a.
urban management.
c.
range improvement.
b.
deforestation.
d.
overgrazing.
 

 92. 
Which of the following is an example of how people use land?
a.
to harvest wood
c.
to preserve native species
b.
to grow crops
d.
All of the above
 

 93. 
What can be done to sustain the productivity of rangeland?
a.
Limit herd size.
c.
Leave the land unused for a time.
b.
Eliminate invasive plants.
d.
All of the above
 

 94. 
Which of the following statements about tree harvesting methods is correct?
a.
Clear-cutting is quick but is more expensive than other methods due to the vast areas involved.
b.
Selective cutting eliminates the possibility of soil erosion.
c.
Clear-cutting requires the most road building due to the large number of trees harvested.
d.
Selective cutting minimizes the impact on forest ecosystems.
 

 95. 
Given that most people live in urban areas, why should rural areas be preserved?
a.
They provide crucial infrastructure.
c.
They contain greenbelts.
b.
They provide ecological services.
d.
None of the above
 

 96. 
What is reforestation?
a.
removing all trees from an area
c.
replanting trees in an area
b.
removing selected trees from an area
d.
None of the above
 

 97. 
Which of the following best describes why many people in the world go hungry?
a.
Food production has not been increasing as fast as the human population.
b.
There is plenty of food produced for everyone to have more than enough, but it is not distributed equally.
c.
In recent years, the human population has been growing, while food production has been falling.
d.
Global warming has contributed to crop failures.
 

 98. 
Which of the following agricultural products requires the least amount of energy?
a.
beef cattle
c.
dairy cows
b.
wheat
d.
Both (b) and (c)
 

 99. 
All of the following factors can cause famines except
a.
the failure of food production to keep pace with population growth.
b.
distribution problems caused by political turmoil.
c.
new, higher-yield crops.
d.
crop failure brought on by sustained drought.
 

 100. 
The results of the green revolution were not entirely positive because
a.
there were too few subsistence farmers.
b.
use of pesticides and fertilizers increased the risk of pollution.
c.
substantial resources were no longer required to grow the new grain varieties.
d.
All of the above
 

 101. 
Persistent pesticides are those that
a.
require repeated high-dose use for optimum effect.
b.
retain their popularity among U.S. farmers.
c.
become concentrated in organisms high on the food chain.
d.
possess the greatest chemical toxicity.
 

 102. 
Integrated pest management can include chemical pest control, _____, and a mix of farming methods.
a.
frequent tilling
c.
biological pest control
b.
aquaculture
d.
All of the above
 

 103. 
Dredging streambeds may be an effective technique for mining
a.
salt.
c.
gold.
b.
coal.
d.
sulfur.
 

 104. 
Placer deposits are surface mineral deposits that have been concentrated by
a.
surface mining.
c.
movement of wind and water.
b.
subsurface mining.
d.
evaporation and condensation.
 

 105. 
Which of the following would not likely be mined using solution mining?
a.
gypsum
c.
salt
b.
potash
d.
sulfur
 

 106. 
A quarry also could be called
a.
an open pit.
c.
a longwall.
b.
the overburden.
d.
a pillar.
 

 107. 
The _____ sets standards to minimize the surface effects of coal mining on the environment.
a.
Clean Water Act
b.
Comprehensive Response Compensation and Liability Act
c.
Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977
d.
Safe Drinking Water Act
 

 108. 
Electric generators work by
a.
converting oil into electricity.
b.
turning turbines in a dam.
c.
converting mechanical energy into electrical energy.
d.
rubbing copper against a substance that does not conduct electricity.
 

 109. 
Oil and natural gas result from
a.
the migration of complex carbohydrate molecules to nonporous rock formations.
b.
the decay of tiny marine organisms that accumulated on the ocean floor millions of years ago.
c.
the burning of high-sulfur, low-grade uranium.
d.
the decay of plants that lived in swamps hundreds of thousands of years ago.
 

 110. 
Inside the combustion chamber of a coal-fired power plant,
a.
steam is directed against turbine blades and causes the blades to turn.
b.
the turbine sets the generator in motion.
c.
electricity is generated.
d.
burning fossil fuels release energy in the form of heat.
 

 111. 
The energy needs for the United States in the 1990s have
a.
risen dramatically.
c.
risen slightly.
b.
fallen dramatically.
d.
fallen slightly.
 

 112. 
Nuclear fusion
a.
must take place at extremely high temperatures.
b.
does not release a great amount of energy.
c.
must take place in low-density containers.
d.
results in nuclei that are lighter in weight than the nuclei that existed before the reaction.
 

 113. 
Solar energy, or energy from the sun, is contained in
a.
uranium.
c.
fossil fuels.
b.
radioactive waste.
d.
all nonrenewable resources.
 

 114. 
The energy in fossil fuels is often converted into
a.
electricity.
c.
uranium.
b.
magnetic fields.
d.
power plants.
 

 115. 
Oil production is still increasing, but it
a.
will start decreasing in the next year.
b.
is increasing much more dramatically than it did in the past.
c.
will start decreasing in the next five years.
d.
is increasing much more slowly than it did in the 1960s.
 

 116. 
Which of the following is an example of how biomass fuel is currently being used?
a.
Biogas digesters ferment manure and produce methane.
b.
Dung-fired power stations produce electricity.
c.
Ethanol from fermenting corn is added to gasoline.
d.
All of the above
 

 117. 
A geothermal power plant gets energy by
a.
pumping heated water or steam from rock formations.
b.
circulating fluid underground.
c.
holding water behind a dam.
d.
using methane from decomposition.
 

 118. 
Geothermal heat pumps can heat homes by
a.
circulating fluid underground to absorb heat from Earth.
b.
pumping hot water or steam from deep underground.
c.
using underground rivers to turn a small turbine.
d.
All of the above
 

 119. 
In developing countries, you are most likely to find biomass used
a.
to generate electricity.
c.
as a source of hydropower.
b.
for manufacturing.
d.
for heating and cooking.
 

 120. 
Which of the following statements does not describe a problem associated with modern landfills?
a.
Chemicals leaking out of the waste stored there may pollute wells or groundwater supplies.
b.
Materials buried in landfills decompose in three years.
c.
Explosive gases can be produced by landfills and may build up in the basements of nearby buildings.
d.
All of the above
 

 121. 
Which items make up the largest percentage of waste produced by households and businesses?
a.
aluminum cans
b.
plastic bottles and packaging
c.
paper products
d.
yard waste, such as grass clippings and tree limbs
 

 122. 
What percentage of the energy needed to make aluminum cans from ore is needed to make recycled aluminum cans from used aluminum cans?
a.
95 percent
c.
5 percent
b.
60 percent
d.
None of the above
 

 123. 
Which of the following correctly describes the disposal of waste by composting?
a.
Composting is a good way for individuals to reduce the amount of garbage they send to landfills, but large-scale composting is impractical.
b.
Composting could reduce the amount of waste that restaurants, food-processing plants, and animal feedlots send to landfills.
c.
Compost made from glass and plastics can be recycled and used as building materials.
d.
Yard wastes, such as grass clippings, are not suitable for composting because they contain low levels of nutrients.
 

 124. 
A common characteristic of all hazardous-waste land-disposal facilities is that they
a.
are long-term storage sites.
b.
make use of deep-well injection.
c.
pose no threat to the environment.
d.
are not regulated by state or federal laws.
 

 125. 
Which of the following is not a requirement for a landfill built today?
a.
It must be lined with clay and plastic.
b.
It must be a specified distance from a city or other populated area.
c.
It must have systems for collecting and treating leachate.
d.
Vent pipes must be installed for removing methane.
 

 126. 
Each year, most of the cases of organophosphate poisoning occur in people who are
a.
applying the chemical to crops.
b.
eating fruit and vegetables with chemical residues.
c.
inhaling the chemical while working in gas stations.
d.
working in factories with various chemicals.
 

 127. 
Toxicology is the study of the harmful effects of
a.
substances on organisms.
c.
pollutants on the environment.
b.
viruses on organisms.
d.
antibiotics on viruses.
 

 128. 
Which of the following pollutants are added to air by burning fuels for vehicles?
a.
carbon monoxide and many kinds of particulates
b.
organophosphates and many kinds of particulates
c.
carbon monoxide and organophosphates
d.
radon and heavy metals
 

 129. 
Which of the following statements is true about pollutants from waste disposal?
a.
Laws regulating waste disposal are strictly enforced.
b.
Old landfills still prevent any wastes from leaking.
c.
Waste incineration plants no longer emit toxic products.
d.
Many communities release raw sewage into a river or the ocean after a heavy rain.
 

 130. 
The environment is an important factor in the spread of cholera and dysentery because
a.
air can carry the pathogens.
b.
water provides a habitat in which the pathogens breed.
c.
the pathogens reproduce in soil.
d.
the disease is transmitted by mosquitoes.
 

 131. 
Which of the following environmental changes is most likely to lead to the spread of parasites such as hookworm?
a.
overuse of pesticides
c.
overuse of antibiotics
b.
resistance to antibiotics
d.
contaminated soil
 

 132. 
Why has the International Whaling Commission found it difficult to limit whale harvesting?
a.
Some countries disagree with the policies and practices and refuse to comply.
b.
There is not one governing body that controls international waters, and rule enforcement is difficult.
c.
There are loopholes in the regulations that countries are using to opt out of IWC rules.
d.
All of the above
 

 133. 
A government restricts the production of a certain chemical. This is an example of a(n)
a.
economic failure.
c.
marketing ploy.
b.
economic incentive.
d.
regulation.
 

 134. 
Solutions to environmental problems require
a.
individual action.
b.
the cooperation of many people.
c.
a basis in scientific methods and knowledge.
d.
All of the above
 

 135. 
What action allows individuals to affect environmental policy at all levels of government?
a.
voting
c.
incentives
b.
recycling
d.
attending zoning board meetings
 

 136. 
In 1992, representatives at the Earth Summit agreed upon a plan called Agenda 21, which strove to balance
a.
economic and environmental concerns.
b.
local and state laws.
c.
voting rights and animal rights.
d.
None of the above
 

 137. 
Which term describes the condition in which humans can survive indefinitely as their needs are being met?
a.
globalization
c.
sustainability
b.
environmental awareness
d.
economics
 



 
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